Friend has 5 yr old, maiden mare that she wants to breed to my stallion .Absolutely NO repro abnormalities externally, internally or hormonely ,everything checked via scan and palpation and all blood work normal, (hymen intact upon first internal. ) She is a 5 day heat mare like clockwork, ovulation morning of 4th day every time . First C&S when a 3 yr old showed scant psuedomonis, klepscella( sorry about the spelling) and insignificant e. coli-) RX'ed with appropriate intrauterine antibiotic with correct number of Rx's each heat with oxy use at correct intervals to eliminate any chance of "left over fluid from RX " and short cycled. Filly continued with same results 3 consecutive cycles and RX'ed approriately each time with a different Antibiotic for sensitivity as per labs list. Decision to RX and leave her open as a 3 yr old until the following year. Following year( last year) ...same thing and RX for 3-4 cycles- left open . Owner PG and wants to lease the mare to me for breeding for the next few years ... what would be my best plan of attack I should take to get her clean if C&S shows same problem this year ?? Have bred horse for 28 years...NEVER had problems getting one clean to cover, so it's puzzling to my Repro vet also, who has seen all paperwork and testing. Testing was done at large Equine Repro center and via her vet also... results identical. If not clean this year....}What in the world could cause this???..poor owner beside herself as she bought her specifically for dressage and future broodmare.
I guess this got missed earlier in the season, and the advice may not be so useful now as it's probably "after the fact", but here goes...
The organism presence you mention in that quantity would normally suggest a contamination, so the first question that needs to be asked is what the cytology showed - was there active inflammation? The answer however will only help a little bit, as one of the organisms - Pseudomonas - can be commensal, which means it can be present but the body not recognising it until it "blooms", so the general rule is to treat regardless of cytology results. The other concern is that both Pseudomonas and Klebsiella are seen in some instances to be STD's.
IV antibiotics will probably be inadequate for treatment of a uterine issue. Tissue levels cannot be elevated sufficiently with IV therapy to clear a uterine infection, so treatment with uterine lavage is necessary.
Obviously use of a suitable antibiotic is suggested, but I have to wonder if this issue didn't arise as a result of a prior treatment with an antibiotic, and what is now being seen is the "superinfection" situation. I would therefore initially try treatment with a non-antibiotic therapy such as a mannose lavage, or grapefruit seed extract lavage, and then reculture. Only if those did not work would I return to antibiotic therapy. The other big concern in a situation such as this is whether a yeast is also present, so evaluation for that to start with may well be advisable, and treatment if present initiated before any other treatment.
Even though she may have apparently good reproductive anatomy, I may feel inclined to put in a Caslick's procedure, as the continued infection seems to suggest a conformational failure of some sort.
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