I would follow this mare - she may not be hemorrhagic, it takes several days (and changes) to confirm that. My feeling is that perhaps the mare was not as far ahead as the vet had thought she was, and is in fact progressing perfectly normally.
If you wait 10 days to give prostaglandin, and she has ovulated when she was meant to, then she would be coming back into estrus anyway when the prostglandin would cause the mare to come back into estrus - in other words, there's no reason to use it... If OTOH she didn't ovulate within the preceding 6 days (including if she was hemorrhagic but not producing luteal tissue) then she won't come back into estrus anyway. I'm a little unconfortable with what is being portrayed as a scenario to you here, or perhaps your interpretation of it...?
In the cited article, you will note that there is a repetition rate of about 43% in the same breeding season. The cause is unknown, and other than resolving those that do respond with prostaglandin, there is nothing that can be done.
He told me that she had an anovulatory follicle. That is as much as I know, need to call tomorrow and ask questions.
The course of action is as follows:
He gave me two syringes of lutayse - to be given on the 16th and 17th. The mare will be ultrasounded on the 19th.
The mare is 19, a little on the fleshy side and her last foal was in 2003. She was given lutalyse for that breeding because she would not release her follicle.
Does that help? Are there certain questions that I should be asking my vet - he is a repro guy and was recommended to me by multiple people including my "regular" vet.
I just want to do what I can to help and educate myself.
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